AIEEE 2003 Math Solved Paper

Section: Mathematics

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Question : 35 of 66

Marks: +1, -0

Let f(x) be a function satisfying f′(x)=f(x) with f(0)=1 and g(x) be a function that satisfies f(x)+g(x)=x2. Then the value of the integral

1

∫

0

f(x)g(x)‌dx, is

[AIEEE 2003]

e+‌
e2
2
+‌
5
2
e−‌
e2
2
−‌
5
2
e+‌
e2
2
−‌
3
2
e−‌
e2
2
−‌
3
2

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