JEE Mains 6-Apr-2023 Shift 2 Solved Paper

Section: Mathematics
© examsiri.com
Question : 27 of 90
 
Marks: +1, -0
Let f(x)=
x
(1+xn)
1
n
,
‌x∈ℝ−{−1},n∈ℕ,n>2. If fn(x)=n (fofof..... upto n times) (x), then
lim
n→∞
‌
1
∫
0
xn−2(fn(x))‌dx
is equal to _______.
[6-Apr-2023 shift 2]
  • Your Answer:
Go to Question: