Let f(x):\{\table x\text{,}, x \text{is rational};0\text{,},x \text{ is irrational} and g(x):\{\table0\text{,},x \text{is rational};x\text{,},x \text{ is irrational} If f:R\toR and g:R\toR, then (f-g) is [NDA I 2017]

Correct Answer is : One-one and onto

UPSC NDA I 2017 Mathematics Solved Paper

Question : 66 of 120

Marks: +1, -0

Let f(x):{

x,	x‌is rational
0,	x‌ is irrational

and g(x):{

0,	x‌is rational
x,	x‌ is irrational

If f:R→R and g:R→R, then (f−g) is

[NDA I 2017]

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x	x∊R
−x	x∊R−Q