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Question : 66 of 80
Marks:
+1,
-0
Solution:
Let the charge on particle is q .
Given,
‌=V1+V2‌=F1+F2Let's assume that magnetic field is
=B1+B2+B3We know that,
=q(×)...(i)
Let's find,
×, by cross product
×=||=v2B3−v1B3+(v1B2−v2B1)‌widehat‌kHence, by eq. (i),
F1+F2=qv2B3−qv1B3+q(v1B2−v2B1)‌widehat‌kSo we can write,
‌q(v1B2−v2B1)=0‌⇒v1B2−v2B1=0‌⇒‌=‌Hence, option (B) is correct.
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